Being a neutral supporter, I like goals to be perfectly legal in important games like this game. In my opinion, the first goal isn't offside as Suarez does not touch the ball and that is the only way to interfere with play according to IFAB and FIFA. I think this law should be adjusted a bit by saying that forward runs with intention to take the ball should be penalised. For the second goal, Suarez was offside in the build up of play and I thought that in that phase of play, he could not interfere with play until that phase of play was over according to the law that FIFA set up. I acknowledge that he was not offside when the ball was passed to him but what I'm trying to say is that he was offside when Lucas played the ball through to Meireles who was onside but played the ball through to Suarez who wasn't in an offside position when the ball was played but I think that he is an illegal player in that phase of play due to being offside when Lucas played the ball through to Meireles.
Please give me some feedback as I do not know the full offside law.
Please comment.
P.S. Sorry if I have repeated myself twice.
Were goals against Arsenal offside?
posted on 26/8/11
As for the second goal, again, because of the way the rules are read, not offside either.
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But the rulebook is pretty explicit in saying that in situations like the second goal it is not offside
Page 109 example 12
Really it would help if you actually read the rulebook.
posted on 26/8/11
comment by Iconic white sleeves (U8973)
posted 48 seconds ago
So I will conclude that since nobody has any opposition to the rulebook, then both goals were onside. I'm glad we've cleared this up.
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But according to the rulebook, the first goal was offside.
Have you read it? I have.
Page 108 example 9.
The rulebook says that you have to be
a) Touching the ball after it is passed by team-mate - or rebounds off post, crossbar or opponent
or
b)Preventing an opponent from being able to play the ball by obstructing the opponent's line of vision or distracting him/her
This rule has been in play for many years now and still people can't understand it.
For me that means the rule is wrong but it is the laws that every team has to abide by.
Unfortunately it was us that gained an advantage from this silly rule.
I do believe that we will see another change within the next few years.
posted on 26/8/11
Neither goal was offside.
The rules clearly states that the player has to touch the ball to be in an offside position or obstuct the opposing player. Whilst Suarez was marginally offside when the ball was played he didn't touch the ball, or obstruct the opposing player. Miquel got to the ball first, it hit Ramsay and went in. Suarez didn't touch it so he can not be offside.
The rules according to FIFA and IFAB are as follows
Interfering with play means playing or touching the ball passed or touched by a team-mate.
Interfering with an opponent means preventing an opponent from playing or being able to play the ball by clearly obstructing the opponent’s line of vision or movements or making a gesture or movement which, in the opinion of the referee, deceives or distracts an opponent.
Gaining an advantage by being in that position means playing a ball that rebounds to him off a goal-post or the crossbar having been in an offside position or playing the ball that rebounds to him off an opponent having been in an offside position.
I donlt think anyone can argue it. Suarez wasn't offside.
In the second, he was offside in the first phase ofplay, but the ball isn;t played to him. It goes to Meireles who was clearly onside. When he passes it to Suarez, he was on side. Again a perfectly legitimate goal.
Don't see how any Arsenal fan can complain as both goals were within the FIFA rules. Or is there now a special rule for when you play against Arsenal?
posted on 26/8/11
comment by FatJanMolby (U4297)
The rules don't seem to count for much for some reason on here. People are stuck in the 1990's with regards to the offside law. Even after explaining it and showing the rule, taken from the FIFA website, people still disagree. I know opinions are debatable but facts are not.
posted on 26/8/11
This rule has been in play for many years now and still people can't understand it.
For me that means the rule is wrong but it is the laws that every team has to abide by.
Unfortunately it was us that gained an advantage from this silly rule.
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Hang on, are you now saying you think it was offside?
b)Preventing an opponent from being able to play the ball by obstructing the opponent's line of vision or distracting him/her
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It actually says "or making a gesture or movement which distracts him/her"
Can anybody possibly claim that Miquel was in no way influenced by the pressure from Suarez?
posted on 26/8/11
I donlt think anyone can argue it. Suarez wasn't offside.
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But you just quoted the laws where it says "making a gesture or movement which, in the opinion of the referee, deceives or distracts an opponent."
How can you say that Suarez did in no way influence Miquel's actions?
If Suarez was not there, the natural thing to do is to let the ball go out of play surely?
posted on 26/8/11
That would be at the discretion of the officials.
posted on 26/8/11
Actually, the interpetation of the law is such that a player has to physically effect an opponent i.e. block vision, block movement.
The mere suggestion that he may have affected the defender is not enough to qualify as offside.
It's a ridiculous development, but it is the unfortunate reality.
posted on 26/8/11
First goal - maybe offside
Second goal - certainly not.
posted on 26/8/11
"deceives or distracts an opponent."
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An important part of the clause. How did Suarez decieve or distract the Arsenal defence? He didn't. He made a normal run that any striker would make. Had Miquel stood still and not chased the ball, and Suarez got there, he would have been called offside. Miquel touched it so it wasn't offside. There is no argument. According to the rules it was a legitimate goal.