Can anyone clear up a question that has been bothering me for a couple of days? Why was Alexis Sanchez still eligible to play in the fourth round of the FA Cup even though while he was an Arsenal player, Arsenal was eliminated by Nottingham Forest in the third round of the competition but Henrikh Mkhitaryan was apparently cup tied in the semi final (against Chelsea) because Man Utd were knocked out by Bristol City?
I know they are different competitions but I don't understand the reasons for the different rules.
Answer me this...
posted on 28/1/18
comment by selbstgerechtein (U7048)
posted 1 minute ago
Mkhitaryan wasn’t an Arsenal player when the first leg was played, so he was banned from the 2nd leg.
He will be able to play in the final if he didn’t play for Utd in the competition.
Sanchez is irrelevant to this.
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Played for United at Bristol City
posted on 28/1/18
Can Mkhitaryan play in the Europa for us?
posted on 28/1/18
Yes.
posted on 28/1/18
Thank god for that
posted on 28/1/18
comment by D'Jeezus Mackaroni (U1137)
posted 7 minutes ago
comment by selbstgerechtein (U7048)
posted 17 seconds ago
Mkhitaryan wasn’t an Arsenal player when the first leg was played, so he was banned from the 2nd leg.
He will be able to play in the final if he didn’t play for Utd in the competition.
Sanchez is irrelevant to this.
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This is not true. He is cup tied from the final.
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Well it is true, the reason he is cuptied is because he played for Utd in an earlier round, which I did not know and questioned.
posted on 28/1/18
It isn't true - the rules state " in the case of a Premier League Club, one who would be registered and eligible to participate in a Premier League match commencing at the same time and on the same date as the Competition match in accordance with the Premier League Rules"
Mkhitaryan would have been eligible to play for Arsenal in the league the night of the Carabao Cup semi final second leg, thus available for the cup semi if he hadn't been cup tied.
You are thinking of the FA Cup - wherein a player cannot play in a replay if he was not registered for the original tie.
An example of this is Oumar Niasse playing in the second leg of last years competition, despite signing for Hull two days after the first leg.
posted on 28/1/18
I'm pretty sure Ales Sanchez played one league cup match for us, think it may have been the 3rd round. So if he did then he should be cup tied.
posted on 28/1/18
comment by Arsenal_49 (U10665)
posted 1 minute ago
I'm pretty sure Ales Sanchez played one league cup match for us, think it may have been the 3rd round. So if he did then he should be cup tied.
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Man Utd went out of the League Cup to Bristol City before he signed for them...
posted on 28/1/18
comment by D'Jeezus Mackaroni (U1137)
posted 7 minutes ago
comment by Arsenal_49 (U10665)
posted 1 minute ago
I'm pretty sure Ales Sanchez played one league cup match for us, think it may have been the 3rd round. So if he did then he should be cup tied.
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Man Utd went out of the League Cup to Bristol City before he signed for them...
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Yeah but he played for Man United in the FA cup. I assumed cup tied would apply to both domestic competitions not just the one...
posted on 28/1/18
Why would it apply to two different competitions?