PL Firsts.

The second change is on accidental handball in the immediate build-up to a goal.

If an attacking player’s accidental handball immediately precedes another player scoring, the goal will now be awarded, when last season it was likely to have been ruled out.

However, a player will still be penalised if he commits an accidental handball immediately before scoring himself.
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That's the rule.

The question is was the handball by Jesus deliberate?

Most definately

What are you going on about?

You post something from the laws and then ask a question that has nothing to do with it.

There are two questions:

1. Did the ball hitting the hand immediately precede another play scoring?

Answer: No.

2. Was the handball deliberate?

I don't think it was.


You originally claimed that if the player gains an advantage from the ball hitting his hand, then it's an infringement. Which is completely wrong.

So an infield decision says no handball, same level of Ref in VAR room advises a check. Inconsistency here is the issue.

comment by Winston (U16525)
posted 5 hours, 8 minutes ago
What are you going on about?

You post something from the laws and then ask a question that has nothing to do with it.

There are two questions:

1. Did the ball hitting the hand immediately precede another play scoring?

Answer: No.

2. Was the handball deliberate?

I don't think it was.


You originally claimed that if the player gains an advantage from the ball hitting his hand, then it's an infringement. Which is completely wrong.
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I've addressed the fact that the rules have changed but the more I look at the replays, the more I think it was deliberate.

comment by Boris 'Inky’ Gibson (U5901)
posted 3 minutes ago
comment by Winston (U16525)
posted 5 hours, 8 minutes ago
What are you going on about?

You post something from the laws and then ask a question that has nothing to do with it.

There are two questions:

1. Did the ball hitting the hand immediately precede another play scoring?

Answer: No.

2. Was the handball deliberate?

I don't think it was.


You originally claimed that if the player gains an advantage from the ball hitting his hand, then it's an infringement. Which is completely wrong.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
I've addressed the fact that the rules have changed but the more I look at the replays, the more I think it was deliberate.
----------------------------------------------------------------------

No you haven’t.

Also, the rules were never as you claimed.

comment by Winston (U16525)
posted 5 minutes ago
comment by Boris 'Inky’ Gibson (U5901)
posted 3 minutes ago
comment by Winston (U16525)
posted 5 hours, 8 minutes ago
What are you going on about?

You post something from the laws and then ask a question that has nothing to do with it.

There are two questions:

1. Did the ball hitting the hand immediately precede another play scoring?

Answer: No.

2. Was the handball deliberate?

I don't think it was.


You originally claimed that if the player gains an advantage from the ball hitting his hand, then it's an infringement. Which is completely wrong.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
I've addressed the fact that the rules have changed but the more I look at the replays, the more I think it was deliberate.
----------------------------------------------------------------------

No you haven’t.

Also, the rules were never as you claimed.
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They were changed in 2021.

https://www.premierleague.com/news/2204759

The rules have never been that if you gain an advantage from the ball hitting your hand, then it’s handball.

Not that bothered, it's all academic now but Everton fans might feel miffed and I don't blame them.

You could have just said you made a mistake, it’s hardly a big deal.

I did, I suggest you take it up with Terms and Mamba now.