It does seem unfair that the game ban is different.
The fa said it is because Suarez allegedly repeatedly said it.

Even though there was more proof terry.
Does that mean had terry said it several times p, he would have been punished more. Once is enough

It does seem odd, wonder why there's such a substantial difference with the ban length?

Terry's fine is over 5 times the amount Suarez was fined.

Didnt Suarez admit to saying it, just that he didnt realise it was racist?

No he admitted to saying a word that is not offensive in his home country, which depending on who you are could find it offensive over here..

Also evra kept changing his mind on how many times suarez said it, but they still believed him

No he admitted to saying a word that is not offensive in his home country

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Exactly. But it is offensive in Europe, where has lived for the past 5 years. And i imagine the judge didnt buy into him "not knowing" either, when he admitted it but played dumb.

Since when has it been offensive in Europe, the spanish use it aswell.

But my point is the only way i could see a rule breached is that the word means black, its just the different ways of thinking

Since when has the N word been offensive in Europe?
Well according to the internet as early as 1926 in Britain. Britain is in Europe.

If the Spanish use it, why have we never heard any Spaniards being accused of racism? Its because they dont use it, and its no more acceptable there as it is here.

Also, why did Suarez use it if he didnt intent to insult Evra? Why call him that name, rather than Patrice, mate, pal, Oi, geeze?

Makes no sense unless he dliberately wanted to insult him with racist slur.

He didn't call him a n*****r

End of the day, if he meant it to be offensive, hes served his ban, but saying hes a racist implies he hates all black people which is obviously wrong

I didnt say he did. But he did use a word that is considered racist here, and in Europe (where he would have known it to be racist, and insulting, which is why he used it when he clashed with Evra instead of calling him Patrice, mate, pal, Oi or geeze).

So what is the spanish word for the shade black... the word alone isnt offensive, its the way its used, but my point is hes not a racist, he doesn't hate black people.

I didnt say he did hate black people. I'm just saying he used a word he knew was offensive to Evra on the grounds of race.

He admitted saying the word, but played dumb that he didnt know it was offensive in Europe (even though in mine, and obviously the judge's opinion, he did) & so was banned for it.

Judge?

It's viewed as more offensive in the Netherlands than it is in Britain. Spain is irrelevant; Suarez has never lived there.

There is a clear difference between the two.

Suarez used the language in an abusive manner. However (wrongly IMO) Terry was exonerated in the magistrates court that he meant to abuse Ferdinand and instead used the language without thinking. Mostly because of the testimony from Ashley Cole.

Well you said europe.

Suarez probably doesn't hate black people in the same way a man doesn't hate a dog. But he clearly used the word as a slur showing that he thinks that they're inferior to him in the same way that a man thinks a dog is inferior to him.

Nasty piece of work is Suarez.

Guys the word can be offensive!!!

I live in Spain and my friends husband (who is Spanish white) went mental on some guys because they called his wife (Black American) Negra when she entered the tube one time, they didn't know they were together so were chatting about her!
He translated 'negra' in that context as n****r.

So depending on what context you say it in, it could be seen as racist and derogatory.

RuiCostaJr

And he was found innocent in a court of law

A court of law that has to prove a burden of evidence that becomes difficult in these situations. If it was at the civil level then it'd be more appropriate in some ways.

The argument that the word that Suarez described Evra using isn't as bad because it is a standard word in Spanish is a stupid argument. Firstly, as others have said, he's lived in Europe for a few years now and should be aware of what he can and cannot say. Secondly, and more to the point, Terry is alleged to have called Ferdinand a 'black ' - which is also a word that does have an actual meaning rather than just being a useless obscenity. The words used by both players could refer to things in a way that is not offensive, but in the vast majority of situations people would find it offensive so I can't understand why a) people are complaining that Suarez' punishment should have been less than Terry's.

And re the whole 'innocent in court' thing, as a law student I can tell you that that's probably due to the standard of proof - courts require the magistrates to believe that Terry was racist 'beyond reasonable doubt' whereas for the FA I think they only require it to be more likely than not to have happened. So it might have been likely that Terry abused Ferdinand, but couldn't be shown beyond all doubt.