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Is 4-4-2 still viable?

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comment by (U22236)

posted on 8/9/19

Sorry, I guess I was wrong. I thought Man Utd played 4-4-2 under Sir Alex Ferguson.

posted on 8/9/19

comment by (U22236)
posted 37 seconds ago
Sorry, I guess I was wrong. I thought Man Utd played 4-4-2 under Sir Alex Ferguson.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Overwhelmingly, we did, particularly in his early years. But so did nearly all English sides in the nineties.

posted on 8/9/19

comment by rosso is facking happy (U17054)
posted 8 minutes ago
comment by (U22236)
posted 37 seconds ago
Sorry, I guess I was wrong. I thought Man Utd played 4-4-2 under Sir Alex Ferguson.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Overwhelmingly, we did, particularly in his early years. But so did nearly all English sides in the nineties.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
He would have been a pretty crap manager if other managers came in and overran the 4-4-2 in midfield and he did nothing to combat it.

comment by (U22236)

posted on 8/9/19

comment by There'sOnlyOneRed's (U1721)
posted 27 minutes ago
comment by rosso is facking happy(U17054)
posted 8 minutes ago
comment by (U22236)
posted 37 seconds ago
Sorry, I guess I was wrong. I thought Man Utd played 4-4-2 under Sir Alex Ferguson.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Overwhelmingly, we did, particularly in his early years. But so did nearly all English sides in the nineties.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
He would have been a pretty crap manager if other managers came in and overran the 4-4-2 in midfield and he did nothing to combat it.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
I just want so say, in Champions League finals playing against teams playing 4-3-3, Ferguson played 4-4-2 in both 2008 and 2011.

posted on 8/9/19

comment by (U22236)
posted 23 minutes ago
comment by There'sOnlyOneRed's (U1721)
posted 27 minutes ago
comment by rosso is facking happy(U17054)
posted 8 minutes ago
comment by (U22236)
posted 37 seconds ago
Sorry, I guess I was wrong. I thought Man Utd played 4-4-2 under Sir Alex Ferguson.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Overwhelmingly, we did, particularly in his early years. But so did nearly all English sides in the nineties.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
He would have been a pretty crap manager if other managers came in and overran the 4-4-2 in midfield and he did nothing to combat it.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
I just want so say, in Champions League finals playing against teams playing 4-3-3, Ferguson played 4-4-2 in both 2008 and 2011.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
He played a CM 'wide' in both games though so it was hardly a classic 442

comment by (U22236)

posted on 8/9/19

So?

posted on 8/9/19

comment by (U22236)
posted 4 minutes ago
So?
----------------------------------------------------------------------
What do you mean so?

comment by (U22236)

posted on 8/9/19

So, what's your point?

posted on 8/9/19

That he didnt play the 442 that you were initially describing in either of those 2 CL finals

comment by (U22236)

posted on 8/9/19

What? All I said was that he played 4-4-2 in the finals.

posted on 8/9/19

comment by (U22236)
posted 15 seconds ago
What? All I said was that he played 4-4-2 in the finals.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
So?

comment by (U22236)

posted on 8/9/19

I'm lost. This is how I understand the conversation is:

I said Sir Alex Ferguson played 4-4-2 mostly even in his last few seasons.
I was told I was an idiot and wrong.
I accepted this.
I was then told Sir Alex would change his formation to avoid getting overrun in midfield.
I then pointed out that Sir Alex played 4-4-2 in two champions league finals against teams playing 4-3-3.
And that's it if I'm not mistaken

posted on 8/9/19

comment by (U22236)
posted 32 seconds ago
I'm lost. This is how I understand the conversation is:

I said Sir Alex Ferguson played 4-4-2 mostly even in his last few seasons.
I was told I was an idiot and wrong.
I accepted this.
I was then told Sir Alex would change his formation to avoid getting overrun in midfield.
I then pointed out that Sir Alex played 4-4-2 in two champions league finals against teams playing 4-3-3.
And that's it if I'm not mistaken
----------------------------------------------------------------------
But you get that not every 442 is the same right?

He did change the way he played for the CL finals even if he still played a 442

You're looking at this in a pretty primitive way wahl

comment by (U22236)

posted on 8/9/19

comment by Christopher (U20930)
posted 51 seconds ago
comment by (U22236)
posted 32 seconds ago
I'm lost. This is how I understand the conversation is:

I said Sir Alex Ferguson played 4-4-2 mostly even in his last few seasons.
I was told I was an idiot and wrong.
I accepted this.
I was then told Sir Alex would change his formation to avoid getting overrun in midfield.
I then pointed out that Sir Alex played 4-4-2 in two champions league finals against teams playing 4-3-3.
And that's it if I'm not mistaken
----------------------------------------------------------------------
But you get that not every 442 is the same right?

He did change the way he played for the CL finals even if he still played a 442

You're looking at this in a pretty primitive way wahl
----------------------------------------------------------------------
I know every 4-4-2's not the same. Owen Hargreaves played on one of the wide positions in the 4-4-2 Sir Alex played against Chelsea. He wasn't a winger.

But what does that have to do with what I've said? I never said it had to be traditional 4-4-2.

posted on 8/9/19

comment by (U22236)
posted 17 seconds ago
comment by Christopher (U20930)
posted 51 seconds ago
comment by (U22236)
posted 32 seconds ago
I'm lost. This is how I understand the conversation is:

I said Sir Alex Ferguson played 4-4-2 mostly even in his last few seasons.
I was told I was an idiot and wrong.
I accepted this.
I was then told Sir Alex would change his formation to avoid getting overrun in midfield.
I then pointed out that Sir Alex played 4-4-2 in two champions league finals against teams playing 4-3-3.
And that's it if I'm not mistaken
----------------------------------------------------------------------
But you get that not every 442 is the same right?

He did change the way he played for the CL finals even if he still played a 442

You're looking at this in a pretty primitive way wahl
----------------------------------------------------------------------
I know every 4-4-2's not the same. Owen Hargreaves played on one of the wide positions in the 4-4-2 Sir Alex played against Chelsea. He wasn't a winger.

But what does that have to do with what I've said? I never said it had to be traditional 4-4-2.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Because all TOOR said was that SAF would do things to combat being overran with the 442 midfield. Which he did.

comment by (U22236)

posted on 8/9/19

My head is spinning.

I said he played 4-4-2
TOOR said I was wrong
I said he played 4-4-2 in a final
He did
I'm still wrong

How sway?

posted on 8/9/19

"I was then told Sir Alex would change his formation to avoid getting overrun in midfield."

You were never told this.

comment by (U22236)

posted on 8/9/19

My head is spinning.

I said:

"Sir Alex never changed it. He played 4-4-2 right up to his final year. I guess the difference is he used Rooney in the two who didn't always stay as a striker? And he reached 3 CL finals with a 4-4-2 when most teams were using 4-3-3."

And then Rosso said:

"This is plain wrong.

From 2006 to 2010 for example, Fergie used 4-3-3/4-5-1 frequently, with Rooney, Tevez and Ronaldo all interchanging up top.

Park was sometimes used out wide as a defensive winger.

That was one of the most successful periods in the club’s history. We won three titles and reached two CL finals.

He also used 4-5-1 frequently after we signed Veron in 2001 (I think), particularly to try a different approach in Europe."

And then TOOR said:

"Wahl demonstrating he doesn't have a clue again. What's funny is in 2011 he was about 10. What would you know about it? And if you don't know, Google it. It's all there."

And then TOOR also said:

"He would have been a pretty crap manager if other managers came in and overran the 4-4-2 in midfield and he did nothing to combat it."

And then I said

"I just want so say, in Champions League finals playing against teams playing 4-3-3, Ferguson played 4-4-2 in both 2008 and 2011."

What is the problem here, because I'm not following it.

posted on 8/9/19

Real quick - are you being intentionally dense or is it actually worth me explaining this to you?

comment by (U22236)

posted on 8/9/19

No I am not being intentionally dense, please explain this to me. Find me the exact quote where I have furrked up please.

posted on 8/9/19

Ok wahl let's break this down


You said SAF "never changed it" in regards to which formation he would play.

This is false and everybody pointed that out to you. But this being false doesn't mean that he never played 442. It just means he didn't exclusively play 442. Rosso even said that United "overwhelmingly" did play 442, but you're initial claim that they always played 442 under SAF wasn't accurate.

TOOR then said that SAF did things tactically to prevent being overran in midfield. This is true; fergie frequently used a 3 man midfield in europe, even if that meant playing a 3rd CM wide and having him tuck in.

You countered this point by pointing out that United played a 442 in the 2008 and 2011 CL finals. What are we supposed to take away from this? Nobody has ever claimed that SAF never played a 442 against a 433. All TOOR said was that fergie did things to prevent being overran in midfield - he never said anything about formations.

So I pointed out that even though he still played a 442 - he was still doing something to prevent being overran in midfield by playing a CM wide, which is all that TOOR was arguing.

comment by (U22236)

posted on 8/9/19

Rosso even said that United "overwhelmingly" did play 442, but you're initial claim that they always played 442 under SAF wasn't accurate.
--------------
Always wasn't literal. I don't know what formation he played in every single game.How could I? All I was saying was that the formation he played over the course of every season apart from one mostly was 4-4-2. Because it was. One season he switched to 4-3-3, the rest was 4-4-2.

comment by (U22236)

posted on 8/9/19

TOOR then said that SAF did things tactically to prevent being overran in midfield.
-------------------
And I never said he didn't. So what's the issue here?

comment by (U22236)

posted on 8/9/19

You countered this point by pointing out that United played a 442 in the 2008 and 2011 CL finals.
--------------------
No I didn't. Like I said:

"I said he played 4-4-2
TOOR said I was wrong
I said he played 4-4-2 in a final
He did
I'm still wrong

How sway?"

posted on 8/9/19

You literally just said that you interpreted TOOR's comment as "Sir Alex would change his formation to avoid getting overrun in midfield."

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